[Begin Marquart quote]
- Calov’s classic commentary on the Augsburg Confession (1665) put it like this:
- [Justification] is the object of faith in that it is offered by God in the Gospel; it is the effect [of faith], to put it thus, in so far as grace having been apprehended by faith, the forgiveness of sins happens to us by that very act.
John Benedict Carpzov’s Introduction to the Symbolical Books of the Lutheran Churches spells this out in greater detail:
- The forgiveness of sins is considered in a twofold manner. First, as it has been acquired by Christ and is offered as a benefit promised and intended by God for sinners, to be sought and had in the Word and Sacraments. Afterwards [forgiveness is considered] as it has already been accepted by faith, has been applied, and is possessed. . . In the first manner the forgiveness of sins is the object of faith insofar as it justifies. . .
It is this necessary and fundamental distinction, without which it is not possible to explain “faith alone” and the proper function of faith in justification, which was always the point of all standard Lutheran talk about “objective” or general, and “subjective” or personal justification. The terms may be recent, but they express and safeguard nothing other than “the catechismal doctrine plain”:
- The work is finished and completed, Christ has acquired and won the treasure for us by His sufferings, death, and resurrection, etc. But if the work remained hidden and no one knew of it, it would have been all in vain, all lost. In order that this treasure might not be buried but put to use and enjoyed, God has caused the Word to be published and proclaimed, in which he has given the Holy Spirit to offer and apply to us this treasure of salvation (Large Catechism, Creed, 38).
Although the work was accomplished and forgiveness of sins was acquired on the cross, yet it cannot come to us in any other way than through the Word. . . Now, the whole Gospel and the article of the Creed, “I believe one holy Christian church, the forgiveness of sins,” etc., are by the Word placed into this Sacrament and set before us. . . The treasure is opened and placed at everyone’s door, yes, upon everyone’s table, but what goes with it, is that you also attend to it and with certainty assent to it, as the words give [it] to you (Sacrament of the Altar, 31, 32, 35, slightly correcting Tappert’s text, p. 450).
[End Marquart quote]
This is how we should speak of forgiveness and justification: as a treasure that has been won for all sinners, not as something that has already happened to all sinners. This is why statements like “All people have been forgiven” are ambiguous and misleading. It directly (and wrongly) implies the reception of forgiveness by all people. It directly (and wrongly) implies that the atheists of the world have a status of “forgiven/righteous” before God, even while they openly curse the name of Christ, which is the very “place” where forgiveness is offered. To be sure, their sins have been paid for. But their status does not become “forgiven” except through faith in Him who is the Mercy Seat of God.

5 comments:
Pastor,
In regards to this statement:
"This is why statements like “All people have been forgiven” are ambiguous and misleading. It directly (and wrongly) implies the reception of forgiveness by all people."
It is not ambiguous and quite plain; to the point there is no reception needed on the part of the sinner. They are forgiven whether they believe it or not.
Thank you for continuing to fillet this false doctrine with the sword of faith.
Joe
But you see, I think it is ambiguous. A Universalist could say it just like that, unqualified. "All people have been forgiven." And then conclude that hell will be empty, or that "all paths lead to God," or (like Rome's doctrine), "If anyone gets to heaven, it's for Christ's sake, even if a person never hears the gospel and believes in Christ."
When the typical WELS member says, "All people have been forgiven," they still understand (and WELS publicly confesses) that no one will be in heaven who didn't hear and believe the gospel. When they say, "All have been forgiven," they still understand the need for faith in order to be eternally saved.
Being honest, I've never run across a WELS member or pastor who thought that a person who doesn't believe in Christ will be saved. Have you?
What does exist is this inconsistency, this lack of qualification (i.e., "in Christ," "through faith," etc.) when we speak of salvation and forgiveness (and justification), to the point that we start talking like Kokomo, which is downright dangerous. (The Kokomo theses will be addressed soon, and Marquart rightly rejects them.)
The WELS has not reached Universalism yet. But we do need to review the way the old, old Lutherans (Luther, Chemnitz, Melanchthon, Calov, Gerhard, Quenstedt) talked about justification and return to their way of speech and understanding. Otherwise, in our sincere attempt to "guard" the completeness of the work of Christ, we risk overturning the beautiful, Scriptural doctrine of "faith alone" with "faith as that which validates God's already pronounced verdict."
I'm curious of your evaluation of the Common Confession's statements on justification. This discussion resembles the discussions that went on then when MO was trying to establish fellowship with the ALC (Ohio - which we were historically at odds with on the topic). It sounds to me like what you are saying. But our Synod rejected it. (I think our rejecting it may have been an overreaction to other problems - intuitu fidei; unionism - but maybe I'm missing something.)
From the Common Confession:
"By His redemptive work Christ is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world; hence, forgiveness of sin has been secured and provided for all men. (This is often spoken of as objective justification.)
Hence no sinner need be eternally lost on account of his sins. God offers this propitiation and reconciliation freely to all men through His means of grace. There is nothing in sinful man or in what he may do to merit God’s declaring him righteous.
God justifies the sinner solely on the basis of Christ’s righteousness, which He imputes to the sinner through the Gospel and which the sinner accepts by faith."
I'm also puzzled by your response to Joe. It's OK to say "Everyone has been forgiven" so long as you don't really mean it?
David Brandt
David,
I've only got a minute and will get to your first question later. To your second question about my response to Joe, I don't believe I said it's OK to talk like that. I believe I called that statement "ambiguous" and in need of qualification, to add at the very least "in Christ."
David,
""By His redemptive work Christ is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world; hence, forgiveness of sin has been secured and provided for all men. (This is often spoken of as objective justification.)
Hence no sinner need be eternally lost on account of his sins. God offers this propitiation and reconciliation freely to all men through His means of grace. There is nothing in sinful man or in what he may do to merit God’s declaring him righteous.
God justifies the sinner solely on the basis of Christ’s righteousness, which He imputes to the sinner through the Gospel and which the sinner accepts by faith."
For the most part, I think the statement itself is acceptable. The description of "objective justification" seems good enough. The last part doesn't seem to be worded as well.
"...which He imputes to the sinner through the Gospel..." I am not aware of a Scripture passage that speaks of the "crediting" of Christ's righteousness to be "through the Gospel," but rather, "to faith" or that "faith is imputed for righteousness." Yes, Christ is offered in the Gospel, but "imputation through the Gospel" just doesn't sound like anything I've ever heard before.
"...and which the sinner accepts by faith." Historically, Lutherans have preferred the word "receives" to the word "accepts." "To accept," in English, has overtones of decision, although it can certainly be understood correctly. Perhaps that phrase was too reminiscent of the intuitu fidei stance of Ohio.
Also, as you rightly noted, there may have been other factors involved. Since intuitu fidei had been an issue with Ohio, it seems to me that a "common confession" would have to include some statement that definitively repudiated intuitu fidei for the confession to be accepted. Sometimes, the problem isn't in what's said, but in what's not said. This is how Melanchthon was able to compromise to some degree with the Papists during the Interim.
But I don't know enough of the history of Missouri's dealings with Ohio to say for sure, and I haven't read the WELS opinions regarding the Common Confession, so that's just an educated guess.
Post a Comment
Comments will be accepted or rejected based on the sound Christian judgment of the moderators.
Since anonymous comments are not allowed on this blog, please sign your full name at the bottom of every comment, unless it already appears in your identity profile.